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Let be a translation invariant measure on and let denote the Lebesgue measure on . If there exists an open set such that , it is a simple exercise to show that . Is the same conclusion true if is merely a Borel set? The main purpose of this short note is to construct a measure that provides a negative answer to this question. Incidentally, this construction provides a new example of a translation invariant measure with a rich domain and range that is not Hausdorff, a problem previously studied by Hirst.

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